HAM Toolkit/HAM Toolkit.iso/text/arrl/gen_1.asc

Text File | 1992-10-23 | 49KB | 1,302 lines

3A-3.2 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station on 10.14-MHz?
     A. 200 watts PEP output
     B. 1000 watts DC input
     C. 1500 watts PEP output
     D. 2000 watts DC input

3A-3.3 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station on 3725-kHz?
     A. 200 watts PEP output
     B. 1000 watts DC input
     C. 1500 watts PEP output
     D. 2000 watts DC input

3A-3.4 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station on 7080-kHz?
     A. 200 watts PEP output
     B. 1000 watts DC input
     C. 1500 watts PEP output
     D. 2000 watts DC input

3A-3.5 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station on 24.95-MHz?
     A. 200 watts PEP output
     B. 1000 watts DC input
     C. 1500 watts PEP output
     D. 2000 watts DC input

3A-3.7 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station transmitting on 21.150-MHz?
     A. 200 watts PEP output
     B. 1000 watts DC input
     C. 1500 watts DC input
     D. 1500 watts PEP output

3A-4.1 How must a General control operator at a Novice station
make the station identification when transmitting on 7250 kHz in
ITU Region 2?
     A. The control operator should identify the station with his
or her call, followed by the word "controlling" and the Novice
call
     B. The control operator should identify the station with his
or her call, followed by the slant bar "/" (or any suitable word)
and the Novice call
     C. The control operator should identify the station with the
Novice call, followed by the slant bar "/" (or any suitable word)
and his or her own call
     D. A Novice station should not be operated on 7250 kHz, even
with a General class control operator

3A-4.3 How must a control operator who has a Technician class
license and a "Certificate of Successful Completion of
Examination" for General class privileges identify the station
when transmitting on 14.325 MHz? (Assume telephony)
     A. General-class privileges do not include 14.325 MHz
     B. No special form of identification is needed
     C. The operator shall give his/her call sign, followed by
"slant mark" or any suitable word that denotes the slant mark and
the identifier "AG"
     D. The operator shall give his/her call sign, followed by
the date and location of the VEC examination where he/she
obtained the upgraded license

3A-6.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may third-party
communications be transmitted to a foreign country by an amateur
station where the third party is not eligible to be a control
operator of the station?
     A. Under no circumstances
     B. Only if the country has a third-party communications
agreement with the United States
     C. Only if the control operator is an Amateur Extra class
licensee
     D. Only if the country has formal diplomatic relations with
the United States

3A-6.2 What types of messages may be transmitted by an amateur
station to a foreign country for a third-party?
     A. Third-party communications involving material
compensation, either tangible or intangible, direct or indirect,
to a third party, a station licensee, a control operator, or
other person
     B. Third-party communications facilitating the business
affairs of any party
     C. Third-party communications limited to messages of a
technical nature or remarks of a personal character
     D. No messages may be transmitted to foreign countries for
third parties

3A-6.6 Which of the following limitations apply to third-party
messages transmitted to foreign countries where the third party
is not eligible to be a control operator of the station?
     A. Third-party messages may only be transmitted to amateurs
in countries with which the US has a third-party communications
agreement
     B. Third-party messages may only be sent to amateurs in ITU
Region 1
     C. Third-party messages may only be sent to amateurs in ITU
Region 3
     D. Third-party messages must always be transmitted in
English

3A-8.6 Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station
transmitting on 29.64-MHz repeat the 146.34-MHz signals of an
amateur station with a Technician control operator?
     A. Under no circumstances
     B. Only if the station on 29.64 MHz is operating under a
Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
     C. Only during an FCC-declared general state of
communications emergency
     D. Only if the control operator of the repeater transmitter
is authorized to operate on 29.64 MHz

3A-9.1 What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 160-meter wavelength band?
     A. 1800 to 1900 kHz only
     B. 1900 to 2000 kHz only
     C. 1800 to 2000 kHz only
     D. 1825 to 2000 kHz only

3A-9.2 What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 75/80-meter wavelength band?
     A. 3525 to 3750 and 3850 to 4000 kHz only
     B. 3525 to 3775 and 3875 to 4000 kHz only
     C. 3525 to 3750 and 3875 to 4000 kHz only
     D. 3525 to 3775 and 3850 to 4000 kHz only

3A-9.3 What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 40-meter wavelength band?
     A. 7025 to 7175 and 7200 to 7300 kHz only
     B. 7025 to 7175 and 7225 to 7300 kHz only
     C. 7025 to 7150 and 7200 to 7300 kHz only
     D. 7025 to 7150 and 7225 to 7300 kHz only

3A-9.4 What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 30-meter wavelength band?
     A. 10,100 to 10,150 kHz only
     B. 10,105 to 10,150 kHz only
     C. 10,125 to 10,150 kHz only
     D. 10,100 to 10,125 kHz only

3A-9.5 What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 20-meter wavelength band?
     A. 14,025 to 14,100 and 14,175 to 14,350 kHz only
     B. 14,025 to 14,150 and 14,225 to 14,350 kHz only
     C. 14,025 to 14,125 and 14,200 to 14,350 kHz only
     D. 14,025 to 14,175 and 14,250 to 14,350 kHz only

3A-9.6 What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 15-meter wavelength band?
     A. 21,025 to 21,200 and 21,275 to 21,450 kHz only
     B. 21,025 to 21,150 and 21,300 to 21,450 kHz only
     C. 21,025 to 21,200 and 21,300 to 21,450 kHz only
     D. 21,000 to 21,150 and 21,275 to 21,450 kHz only

3A-9.7 What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 12-meter wavelength band?
     A. 24,890 to 24,990 kHz only
     B. 24,890 to 24,975 kHz only
     C. 24,900 to 24,990 kHz only
     D. 24,790 to 24,990 kHz only

3A-9.8 What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 10-meter wavelength band?
     A. 28,000 to 29,700 kHz only
     B. 28,025 to 29,700 kHz only
     C. 28,100 to 29,700 kHz only
     D. 28,025 to 29,600 kHz only

3A-9.9 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 1820-kHz?
     A. Extra only
     B. Extra, Advanced only
     C. Extra, Advanced, General only
     D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only

3A-9.10 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 3950-kHz?
     A. Extra, Advanced only
     B. Extra, Advanced, General only
     C. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
     D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice only

3A-9.11 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 7230-kHz?
     A. Extra only
     B. Extra, Advanced only
     C. Extra, Advanced, General only
     D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only

3A-9.12 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 10.125-
MHz?
     A. Extra, Advanced, General only
     B. Extra, Advanced only
     C. Extra only
     D. Technician only

3A-9.13 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 14.325-
MHz?
     A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
     B. Extra, Advanced, General only
     C. Extra, Advanced only
     D. Extra only

3A-9.14 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 21.425-
MHz?
     A. Extra, Advanced, General, Novice only
     B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
     C. Extra, Advanced, General only
     D. Extra, Advanced only

3A-9.15 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 24.895-
MHz?
     A. Extra only
     B. Extra, Advanced only
     C. Extra, Advanced, General only
     D. None

3A-9.16 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 29.616-
MHz?
     A. Novice, Technician, General, Advanced, Extra only
     B. Technician, General, Advanced, Extra only
     C. General, Advanced, Extra only
     D. Advanced, Extra only

3A-10.1 On what frequencies within the 160-meter wavelength band
may phone emissions be transmitted?
     A. 1800-2000 kHz only
     B. 1800-1900 kHz only
     C. 1900-2000 kHz only
     D. 1825-1950 kHz only

3A-10.2 On what frequencies within the 80-meter wavelength band
may CW emissions be transmitted?
     A. 3500-3750 kHz only
     B. 3700-3750 kHz only
     C. 3500-4000 kHz only
     D. 3890-4000 kHz only

3A-10.3 On what frequencies within the 40-meter wavelength band
may image emissions be transmitted?
     A. 7225-7300 kHz only
     B. 7000-7300 kHz only
     C. 7100-7150 kHz only
     D. 7150-7300 kHz only

3A-10.4 On what frequencies within the 30-meter wavelength band
may RTTY emissions be transmitted?
     A. 10.140-10.150 MHz only
     B. 10.125-10.150 MHz only
     C. 10.100-10.150 MHz only
     D. 10.100-10.125 MHz only

3A-10.5 On what frequencies within the 20-meter wavelength band
may image emissions be transmitted?
     A. 14,200-14,300 kHz only
     B. 14,150-14,350 kHz only
     C. 14,025-14,150 kHz only
     D. 14,150-14,300 kHz only

3A-10.6 On what frequencies within the 15-meter wavelength band
may image emissions be transmitted?
     A. 21,200-21,300 kHz only
     B. 21,350-21,450 kHz only
     C. 21,200-21,450 kHz only
     D. 21,100-21,200 kHz only

3A-10.7 On what frequencies within the 12-meter wavelength band
may phone emissions be transmitted?
     A. 24,890-24,990 kHz only
     B. 24,890-24,930 kHz only
     C. 24,930-24,990 kHz only
     D. Phone emissions are not permitted in this band

3A-10.8 On what frequencies within the 10-meter wavelength band
may phone emissions be transmitted?
     A. 28,000-28,300 kHz only
     B. 29,000-29,700 kHz only
     C. 28,300-29,700 kHz only
     D. 28,000-29,000 kHz only

3A-13.1 What is the maximum sending speed permitted for data
emissions below 28 MHz?
     A. 56 kilobauds
     B. 19.6 kilobauds
     C. 300 bauds
     D. 1200 bauds

3A-13.2 What is the maximum sending speed permitted for RTTY
emissions below 28 MHz?
     A. 56 kilobauds
     B. 19.6 kilobauds
     C. 1200 bauds
     D. 300 bauds

3A-14.3 Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station
engage in some form of broadcasting?
     A. During severe storms, amateurs may broadcast weather
information for people with scanners
     B. Under no circumstances
     C. If power levels under one watt are used, amateur stations
may broadcast information bulletins, but not music
     D. Amateur broadcasting is permissible above 10 GHz

3A-14.6 Which of the following is ++++not++++ a condition that allows an
amateur station to engage in news gathering for broadcast
purposes?
     A. The information is more quickly transmitted by Amateur
Radio
     B. The information involves the immediate safety of life of
individuals or the immediate protection of property
     C. The information is directly related to the event
     D. The information cannot be transmitted by other means

3A-15.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a
violin be transmitted by an amateur station?
     A. When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious
emissions
     B. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission
     C. Only above 1215 MHz
     D. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur
Service

3A-15.3 Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a
piano be transmitted by an amateur station?
     A. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission
     B. Only above 1215 MHz
     C. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur
Service
     D. When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious
emissions

3A-15.4 Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a
harmonica be transmitted by an amateur station?
     A. When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious
emissions
     B. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur
Service
     C. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission
     D. Only above 1215 MHz

3A-16.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station
in two-way communication transmit a message in a secret code in
order to obscure the meaning of the communication?
     A. Only above 450 MHz
     B. Only on Field Day
     C. Never
     D. Only during a declared communications emergency

3A-16.2 In an amateur communication, what types of abbreviations
or procedural signals are not considered codes or ciphers?
     A. Abbreviations and procedural signals certified by the
ARRL
     B. Abbreviations and procedural signals established by
regulation or custom and usage and whose intent is to facilitate
communication and not to obscure meaning
     C. No abbreviations are permitted, as they tend to obscure
the meaning of the message to FCC monitoring stations
     D. Only "10-codes" are permitted

3A-16.3 When, if ever, are codes or ciphers permitted in two-way
domestic Amateur Radio communications?
     A. Codes or ciphers are prohibited under all circumstances
     B. Codes or ciphers are permitted during ARRL-sponsored
contests
     C. Codes or ciphers are permitted during nationally declared
emergencies
     D. Codes or ciphers are permitted above 2.3 GHz

3A-16.4 When, if ever, are codes or ciphers permitted in two-way
international Amateur Radio communications?
     A. Codes or ciphers are prohibited under all circumstances
     B. Codes or ciphers are permitted during ITU-sponsored DX
contests
     C. Codes or ciphers are permitted during internationally
declared emergencies
     D. Codes or ciphers are permitted only on frequencies above
2.3 GHz

3B-1.4 What is meant by the term ++++flattopping++++ in a single-sideband
phone transmission?
     A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector
current
     B. The transmitter's automatic level control is properly
adjusted
     C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
     D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed

3B-1.5 How should the microphone gain control be adjusted on a
single-sideband phone transmitter?
     A. For full deflection of the ALC meter on modulation peaks
     B. For slight movement of the ALC meter on modulation peaks
     C. For 100% frequency deviation on modulation peaks
     D. For a dip in plate current

3B-2.1 In what segment of the 20-meter wavelength band do most
RTTY transmissions take place?
     A. Between 14.000 and 14.050 MHz
     B. Between 14.075 and 14.100 MHz
     C. Between 14.150 and 14.225 MHz
     D. Between 14.275 and 14.350 MHz

3B-2.2 In what segment of the 80-meter wavelength band do most
RTTY transmissions take place?
     A. 3.610 to 3.630 MHz
     B. 3500 to 3525 kHz
     C. 3700 to 3750 kHz
     D. 3.775 to 3.825 MHz

3B-2.3 What is meant by the term ++++Baudot++++?
     A. Baudot is a 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits
     B. Baudot is a 7-bit code in which each character has four
mark and three space bits
     C. Baudot is a 5-bit code, with additional start and stop
bits
     D. Baudot is a 6-bit code, with additional start, stop and
parity bits

3B-2.4 What is meant by the term ++++ASCII++++?
     A. ASCII is a 7-bit code, with additional start, stop and
parity bits
     B. ASCII is a 7-bit code in which each character has four
mark and three space bits
     C. ASCII is a 5-bit code, with additional start and stop
bits
     D. ASCII is a 5-bit code in which each character has three
mark and two space bits

3B-2.6 What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions
in the amateur HF bands?
     A. 85 Hz
     B. 170 Hz
     C. 425 Hz
     D. 850 Hz

3B-2.10 What are the two subset modes of AMTOR?
     A. A mark of 2125 Hz and a space of 2295 Hz
     B. Baudot and ASCII
     C. ARQ and FEC
     D. USB and LSB

3B-2.11 What is the meaning of the term ++++ARQ++++?
     A. Automatic Repeater Queue
     B. Automatic Receiver Quieting
     C. Automatically Resend Quickly
     D. Automatic Repeat Request

3B-2.12 What is the meaning of the term ++++FEC++++?
     A. Frame Error Check
     B. Forward Error Correction
     C. Frequency Envelope Control
     D. Frequency Encoded Connection

3B-3.8 What is a ++++band plan++++?
     A. An outline adopted by Amateur Radio operators for
operating within a specific portion of radio spectrum
     B. An arrangement for deviating from FCC Rules and
Regulations
     C. A schedule for operating devised by the Federal
Communications Commission
     D. A plan devised for a club on how best to use a band
during a contest

3B-3.12 What is the usual input/output frequency separation for a
10 meter station in repeater operation?
     A. 100 kHz
     B. 600 kHz
     C. 1.6 MHz
     D. 170 Hz

3B-4.1 What is meant by the term ++++VOX transmitter control++++?
     A. Circuitry that causes the transmitter to transmit
automatically when the operator speaks into the microphone
     B. Circuitry that shifts the frequency of the transmitter
when the operator switches from radiotelegraphy to radiotelephony
     C. Circuitry that activates the receiver incremental tuning
in a transceiver
     D. Circuitry that isolates the microphone from the ambient
noise level

3B-4.2 What is the common name for the circuit that causes a
transmitter to automatically transmit when a person speaks into
the microphone?
     A. VXO
     B. VOX
     C. VCO
     D. VFO

3B-5.1 What is meant by the term ++++full break-in telegraphy++++?
     A. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the
breaking station sends the Morse Code symbols BK
     B. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which only
automatic keyers can be used
     C. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the
operator must activate the send-receive switch after completing a
transmission
     D. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the
receiver is sensitive to incoming signals between transmitted key
pulses

3B-5.2 What Q signal is used to indicate full break-in telegraphy
capability?
     A. QSB
     B. QSF
     C. QSK
     D. QSV

3B-6.1 When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what is the
minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress that should
be allowed in order to minimize interference?
     A. 5 to 50 Hz
     B. 150 to 500 Hz
     C. Approximately 3 kHz
     D. Approximately 6 kHz

3B-6.2 When selecting a single-sideband phone transmitting
frequency, what is the minimum frequency separation from a QSO in
progress that should be allowed in order to minimize
interference?
     A. 150 to 500 Hz between suppressed carriers
     B. Approximately 3 kHz between suppressed carriers
     C. Approximately 6 kHz between suppressed carriers
     D. Approximately 10 kHz between suppressed carriers

3B-6.3 When selecting a RTTY transmitting frequency, what is the
minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress that should
be allowed in order to minimize interference?
     A. Approximately 45 Hz center to center
     B. Approximately 250 to 500 Hz center to center
     C. Approximately 3 kHz center to center
     D. Approximately 6 kHz center to center

3B-7.1 What is an ++++azimuthal++++ map?
     A. A map projection that is always centered on the North
Pole
     B. A map projection, centered on a particular location, that
determines the shortest path between two points on the surface of
the earth
     C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite
crosses the equator
     D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an
amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with
each orbit

3B-7.2 How can an azimuthal map be helpful in conducting
international HF radio communications?
     A. It is used to determine the proper beam heading for the
shortest path to a DX station
     B. It is used to determine the most efficient transmitting
antenna height to conduct the desired communication
     C. It is used to determine the angle at which an amateur
satellite crosses the equator
     D. It is used to determine the maximum usable frequency
(MUF)

3B-7.3 What is the most useful type of map when orienting a
directional antenna toward a station 5,000 miles distant?
     A. Azimuthal
     B. Mercator
     C. Polar projection
     D. Topographical

3B-7.4 A directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction
to another station is generally oriented how many degrees from
the short-path heading?
     A. 45 degrees
     B. 90 degrees
     C. 180 degrees
     D. 270 degrees

3B-7.5 What is the short-path heading to Antarctica?
     A. Approximately 0 degrees
     B. Approximately 90 degrees
     C. Approximately 180 degrees
     D. Approximately 270 degrees

3B-8.1 When permitted, transmissions to amateur stations in
another country must be limited to only what type of messages?
     A. Messages of any type are permitted
     B. Messages that compete with public telecommunications
services
     C. Messages of a technical nature or remarks of a personal
character of relative unimportance
     D. Such transmissions are never permitted

3B-8.2 In which International Telecommunication Union Region is
the continental United States?
     A. Region 1
     B. Region 2
     C. Region 3
     D. Region 4

3B-8.3 In which International Telecommunication Union Region is
Alaska?
     A. Region 1
     B. Region 2
     C. Region 3
     D. Region 4

3B-8.4 In which International Telecommunication Union Region is
American Samoa?
     A. Region 1
     B. Region 2
     C. Region 3
     D. Region 4

3B-8.5 For uniformity in international radio communication, what
time measurement standard should Amateur Radio operators
worldwide use?
     A. Eastern Standard Time
     B. Uniform Calibrated Time
     C. Coordinated Universal Time
     D. Universal Time Control

3B-8.6 In which International Telecommunication Union Region is
Hawaii?
     A. Region 1
     B. Region 2
     C. Region 3
     D. Region 4

3B-8.7 In which International Telecommunication Union Region are
the Northern Mariana Islands?
     A. Region 1
     B. Region 2
     C. Region 3
     D. Region 4

3B-8.8 In which International Telecommunication Union Region is
Guam?
     A. Region 1
     B. Region 2
     C. Region 3
     D. Region 4

3B-8.9 In which International Telecommunication Union Region is
Wake Island?
     A. Region 1
     B. Region 2
     C. Region 3
     D. Region 4

3B-10.1 What is the ++++Amateur Auxiliary++++ to the FCC's Field
Operations Bureau?
     A. Amateur Volunteers formally enlisted to monitor the
airwaves for rules violations
     B. Amateur Volunteers who conduct Amateur Radio licensing
examinations
     C. Amateur Volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for
amateur VHF repeaters
     D. Amateur Volunteers who determine height above average
terrain measurements for repeater installations

3B-10.2 What are the objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary to the
FCC's Field Operations Bureau?
     A. To enforce amateur self-regulation and compliance with
the rules
     B. To foster amateur self-regulation and compliance with the
rules
     C. To promote efficient and orderly spectrum usage in the
repeater subbands
     D. To provide emergency and public safety communications

3C-1.6 What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface
that can normally be covered in one hop using the F2 layer?
     A. Approximately 180 miles
     B. Approximately 1200 miles
     C. Approximately 2500 miles
     D. No distance. This layer does not support radio
communication

3C-1.7 What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface
that can be covered in one hop using the E layer?
     A. Approximately 180 miles
     B. Approximately 1200 miles
     C. Approximately 2500 miles
     D. No distance. This layer does not support radio
communication

3C-1.9 What is the average height of maximum ionization of the E
layer?
     A. 45 miles
     B. 70 miles
     C. 200 miles
     D. 1200 miles

3C-1.10 During what part of the day, and in what season of the
year can the F2 layer be expected to reach its maximum height?
     A. At noon during the summer
     B. At midnight during the summer
     C. At dusk in the spring and fall
     D. At noon during the winter

3C-1.13 What is the ++++critical angle++++, as used in radio wave
propagation?
     A. The lowest take off angle that will return a radio wave
to earth under specific ionospheric conditions
     B. The compass direction of the desired DX station from your
location
     C. The 180-degree-inverted compass direction of the desired
DX station from your location
     D. The highest take off angle that will return a radio wave
to earth during specific ionospheric conditions

3C-2.3 What is the main reason that the 160-, 80-, and 40-meter
wavelength amateur bands tend to be useful for only short-
distance communications during daylight hours?
     A. Because of a lack of activity
     B. Because of auroral propagation
     C. Because of D-layer absorption
     D. Because of magnetic flux

3C-2.4 What is the principal reason the 160-meter through 40-
meter wavelength bands are useful for only short-distance
radio communications during daylight hours?
     A. F-layer bending
     B. Gamma radiation
     C. D-layer absorption
     D. Tropospheric ducting

3C-3.3 If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Minnesota
to Africa is 22-MHz, which band should offer the best chance for
a successful QSO?
     A. 10 meters
     B. 15 meters
     C. 20 meters
     D. 40 meters

3C-3.4 If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Ohio to
West Germany is 17-MHz, which band should offer the best chance
for a successful QSO?
     A. 80 meters
     B. 40 meters
     C. 20 meters
     D. 2 meters

3C-5.1 Over what periods of time do sudden ionospheric
disturbances normally last?
     A. The entire day
     B. A few minutes to a few hours
     C. A few hours to a few days
     D. Approximately one week

3C-5.2 What can be done at an amateur station to continue
radio communications during a sudden ionospheric disturbance?
     A. Try a higher frequency
     B. Try the other sideband
     C. Try a different antenna polarization
     D. Try a different frequency shift

3C-5.3 What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on
the daylight ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?
     A. Disrupts higher-latitude paths more than lower-latitude
paths
     B. Disrupts transmissions on lower frequencies more than
those on higher frequencies
     C. Disrupts communications via satellite more than direct
communications
     D. None. Only dark (as in nighttime) areas of the globe are
affected

3C-5.4 How long does it take a solar disturbance that increases
the sun's ultraviolet radiation to cause ionospheric disturbances
on earth?
     A. Instantaneously
     B. 1.5 seconds
     C. 8 minutes
     D. 20 to 40 hours

3C-5.5 Sudden ionospheric disturbances cause increased radio wave
absorption in which layer of the ionosphere?
     A. D layer
     B. E layer
     C. F1 layer
     D. F2 layer

3C-6.2 What is a characteristic of ++++backscatter++++ signals?
     A. High intelligibility
     B. A wavering sound
     C. Reversed modulation
     D. Reversed sidebands

3C-6.4 What makes backscatter signals often sound distorted?
     A. Auroral activity and changes in the earth's magnetic
field
     B. The propagation through ground waves that absorb much of
the signal's clarity
     C. The earth's E-layer at the point of radio wave refraction
     D. The small part of the signal's energy scattered back to
the transmitter skip zone through several radio-wave paths

3C-6.5 What is the radio wave propagation phenomenon that allows
a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave
propagation but too near for normal sky wave propagation?
     A. Ground wave
     B. Scatter
     C. Sporadic-E skip
     D. Short path skip

3C-6.6 When does ionospheric scatter propagation on the HF bands
most often occur?
     A. When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum
     B. At night
     C. When the F1 and F2 layers are combined
     D. At frequencies above the maximum usable frequency

3C-7.1 What is ++++solar flux++++?
     A. The density of the sun's magnetic field
     B. The radio energy emitted by the sun
     C. The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the
earth
     D. A measure of the tilt of the earth's ionosphere on the
side toward the sun

3C-7.2 What is the ++++solar-flux index++++?
     A. A measure of past measurements of solar activity
     B. A measurement of solar activity that compares daily
readings with results from the last six months
     C. Another name for the American sunspot number
     D. A measure of solar activity that is taken daily

3C-7.3 What is a timely indicator of solar activity?
     A. The 2800-MHz solar flux index
     B. The mean Canadian sunspot number
     C. A clock set to Coordinated Universal Time
     D. Van Allen radiation measurements taken at Boulder,
Colorado

3C-7.4 What type of propagation conditions on the 15-meter
wavelength band are indicated by a solar-flux index value of 60
to 70?
     A. Unpredictable ionospheric propagation
     B. No ionospheric propagation is possible
     C. Excellent ionospheric propagation
     D. Poor ionospheric propagation

3C-7.5 A solar flux index in the range of 90 to 110 indicates
what type of propagation conditions on the 15-meter wavelength
band?
     A. Poor ionospheric propagation
     B. No ionospheric propagation is possible
     C. Unpredictable ionospheric propagation
     D. Good ionospheric propagation

3C-7.6 A solar flux index of greater than 120 would indicate what
type of propagation conditions on the 10-meter wavelength band?
     A. Good ionospheric propagation
     B. Poor ionospheric propagation
     C. No ionospheric propagation is possible
     D. Unpredictable ionospheric propagation

3C-7.7 For widespread long distance openings on the 6-meter
wavelength band, what solar-flux index values would be required?
     A. Less than 50
     B. Approximately 75
     C. Greater than 100
     D. Greater than 250

3C-7.8 If the MUF is high and HF radio communications are
generally good for several days, a similar condition can usually
be expected how many days later?
     A. 7 days
     B. 14 days
     C. 28 days
     D. 90 days

3C-10.1 What is a ++++geomagnetic disturbance++++?
     A. A sudden drop in the solar-flux index
     B. A shifting of the earth's magnetic pole
     C. Ripples in the ionosphere
     D. A dramatic change in the earth's magnetic field over a
short period of time

3C-10.2 Which latitude paths are more susceptible to geomagnetic
disturbances?
     A. Those greater than 45 degrees latitude
     B. Those less than 45 degrees latitude
     C. Equatorial paths
     D. All paths are affected equally

3C-10.3 What can be the effect of a major geomagnetic storm on
radio communications?
     A. Improved high-latitude HF communications
     B. Degraded high-latitude HF communications
     C. Improved ground-wave propagation
     D. Improved chances of ducting at UHF

3C-10.4 How long does it take a solar disturbance that increases
the sun's radiation of charged particles to affect radio wave
propagation on earth?
     A. The effect is instantaneous
     B. 1.5 seconds
     C. 8 minutes
     D. 20 to 40 hours

3D-1.5 Which wires in a four conductor line cord should be
attached to fuses in a 234-VAC primary (single phase) power
supply?
     A. Only the "hot" (black and red) wires
     B. Only the "neutral" (white) wire
     C. Only the ground (bare) wire
     D. All wires

3D-1.6 What size wire is normally used on a 15-ampere, 117-VAC
household lighting circuit?
     A. AWG number 14
     B. AWG number 16
     C. AWG number 18
     D. AWG number 22

3D-1.7 What size wire is normally used on a 20-ampere, 117-VAC
household appliance circuit?
     A. AWG number 20
     B. AWG number 16
     C. AWG number 14
     D. AWG number 12

3D-1.8 What could be a cause of the room lights dimming when the
transmitter is keyed?
     A. RF in the AC pole transformer
     B. High resistance in the key contacts
     C. A drop in AC line voltage
     D. The line cord is wired incorrectly

3D-1.9 What size fuse should be used on a #12 wire household
appliance circuit?
     A. Maximum of 100 amperes
     B. Maximum of 60 amperes
     C. Maximum of 30 amperes
     D. Maximum of 20 amperes

3D-2.4 What safety feature is provided by a bleeder resistor in a
power supply?
     A. It improves voltage regulation
     B. It discharges the filter capacitors
     C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
     D. It eliminates ground-loop current

3D-3.1 What kind of input signal is used to test the amplitude
linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter while viewing
the output on an oscilloscope?
     A. Normal speech
     B. An audio-frequency sine wave
     C. Two audio-frequency sine waves
     D. An audio-frequency square wave

3D-3.2 To test the amplitude linearity of a single-sideband phone
transmitter with an oscilloscope, what should the audio input to
the transmitter be?
     A. Normal speech
     B. An audio-frequency sine wave
     C. Two audio-frequency sine waves
     D. An audio-frequency square wave

3D-3.3 How are two tones used to test the amplitude linearity of
a single-sideband phone transmitter?
     A. Two harmonically related audio tones are fed into the
microphone input of the transmitter, and the output is observed
on an oscilloscope
     B. Two harmonically related audio tones are fed into the
microphone input of the transmitter, and the output is observed
on a distortion analyzer
     C. Two non-harmonically related audio tones are fed into the
microphone input of the transmitter, and the output is observed
on an oscilloscope
     D. Two non-harmonically related audio tones are fed into the
microphone input of the transmitter, and the output is observed
on a wattmeter

3D-3.4 What audio frequencies are used in a ++++two-tone test++++ of the
linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter?
     A. 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz tones must be used
     B. 1200 Hz and 2400 Hz tones must be used
     C. Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within
the transmitter audio passband, and must be harmonically related
     D. Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within
the transmitter audio passband, and should not be harmonically
related

3D-3.5 What can be determined by making a ++++two-tone test++++ using an
oscilloscope?
     A. The percent of frequency modulation
     B. The percent of carrier phase shift
     C. The frequency deviation
     D. The amplifier linearity

3D-4.1 How can the grid-current meter in a power amplifier be
used as a neutralizing indicator?
     A. Tune for minimum change in grid current as the output
circuit is changed
     B. Tune for maximum change in grid current as the output
circuit is changed
     C. Tune for minimum grid current
     D. Tune for maximum grid current

3D-4.2 Why is neutralization in some vacuum tube amplifiers
necessary?
     A. To reduce the limits of loaded Q in practical tuned
circuits
     B. To reduce grid to cathode leakage
     C. To cancel acid build-up caused by thorium oxide gas
     D. To cancel oscillation caused by the effects of
interelectrode capacitance

3D-4.3 How is neutralization of an RF amplifier accomplished?
     A. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the
input on alternate half cycles
     B. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the
input shifted 360 degrees out of phase
     C. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the
input shifted 180 degrees out of phase
     D. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the
input with a proper DC bias

3D-4.4 What purpose does a neutralizing circuit serve in an RF
amplifier?
     A. It controls differential gain
     B. It cancels the effects of positive feedback
     C. It eliminates circulating currents
     D. It reduces incidental grid modulation

3D-4.5 What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier
stage of a transmitter?
     A. To limit the modulation index
     B. To eliminate parasitic oscillations
     C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
     D. To keep the carrier on frequency

3D-5.1 How can the output PEP of a transmitter be determined with
an oscilloscope?
     A. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an
oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = [(Vp)(Vp)]/(RL)
     B. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an
oscilloscope, and calculate, using  PEP = [(0.707 PEV)(0.707
PEV)]/RL
     C. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an
oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = (Vp)(Vp)(RL)
     D. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an
oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = [(1.414 PEV)(1.414
PEV)]/RL

3D-5.5 What is the output PEP from a transmitter when an
oscilloscope shows 200-volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm
resistor connected to the transmitter output terminals?
     A. 100 watts
     B. 200 watts
     C. 400 watts
     D. 1000 watts

3D-5.6 What is the output PEP from a transmitter when an
oscilloscope shows 500-volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm
resistor connected to the transmitter output terminals?
     A. 500 watts
     B. 625 watts
     C. 1250 watts
     D. 2500 watts

3D-5.7 What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier
transmitter when an average-reading wattmeter connected to the
transmitter output terminals indicates 1060 watts?
     A. 530 watts
     B. 1060 watts
     C. 1500 watts
     D. 2120 watts

3D-6.1 What item of test equipment contains horizontal and
vertical channel amplifiers?
     A. The ohmmeter
     B. The signal generator
     C. The ammeter
     D. The oscilloscope

3D-6.2 What types of signals can an oscilloscope measure?
     A. Any time-dependent signal within the bandwidth capability
of the instrument
     B. Blinker-light signals from ocean-going vessels
     C. International nautical flag signals
     D. Signals created by aeronautical flares

3D-6.3 What is an ++++oscilloscope++++?
     A. An instrument that displays the radiation resistance of
an antenna
     B. An instrument that displays the SWR on a feed line
     C. An instrument that displays the resistance in a circuit
     D. An instrument that displays signal waveforms

3D-6.4 What can cause phosphor damage to an oscilloscope cathode
ray tube?
     A. Directly connecting deflection electrodes to the cathode
ray tube
     B. Too high an intensity setting
     C. Overdriving the vertical amplifier
     D. Improperly adjusted focus

3D-9.1 What is a ++++signal tracer++++?
     A. A direction-finding antenna
     B. An aid for following schematic diagrams
     C. A device for detecting signals in a circuit
     D. A device for drawing signal waveforms

3D-9.2 How is a signal tracer used?
     A. To detect the presence of a signal in the various stages
of a receiver
     B. To locate a source of interference
     C. To trace the path of a radio signal through the
ionosphere
     D. To draw a waveform on paper

3D-9.3 What is a signal tracer normally used for?
     A. To identify the source of radio transmissions
     B. To make exact replicas of signals
     C. To give a visual indication of standing waves on open-
wire feed lines
     D. To identify an inoperative stage in a radio receiver

3D-10.1 What is the most effective way to reduce or eliminate
audio frequency interference to home entertainment systems?
     A. Install bypass inductors
     B. Install bypass capacitors
     C. Install metal oxide varistors
     D. Install bypass resistors

3D-10.2 What should be done when a properly operating amateur
station is the source of interference to a nearby telephone?
     A. Make internal adjustments to the telephone equipment
     B. Contact a phone service representative about installing
RFI filters
     C. Nothing can be done to cure the interference
     D. Ground and shield the local telephone distribution
amplifier

3D-10.3 What sound is heard from a public address system when
audio rectification occurs in response to a nearby single-
sideband phone transmission?
     A. A steady hum that persists while the transmitter's
carrier is on the air
     B. On-and-off humming or clicking
     C. Distorted speech from the transmitter's signals
     D. Clearly audible speech from the transmitter's signals

3D-10.4 How can the possibility of audio rectification occurring
be minimized?
     A. By using a solid state transmitter
     B. By using CW emission only
     C. By ensuring all station equipment is properly grounded
     D. By using AM emission only

3D-10.5 What sound is heard from a public address system when
audio rectification occurs in response to a nearby double-
sideband phone transmission?
     A. Audible, possibly distorted speech from the transmitter
signals
     B. On-and-off humming or clicking
     C. Muffled, distorted speech from the transmitter's signals
     D. Extremely loud, severely distorted speech from the
transmitter's signals

3D-12.2 What is the reason for using a speech processor with a
single-sideband phone transmitter?
     A. A properly adjusted speech processor reduces average
transmitter power requirements
     B. A properly adjusted speech processor reduces unwanted
noise pickup from the microphone
     C. A properly adjusted speech processor improves voice
frequency fidelity
     D. A properly adjusted speech processor improves signal
intelligibility at the receiver

3D-12.3 When a transmitter is 100% modulated, will a speech
processor increase the output PEP?
     A. Yes
     B. No
     C. It will decrease the transmitter's peak power output
     D. It will decrease the transmitter's average power output

3D-12.4 Under which band conditions should a speech processor not
be used?
     A. When there is high atmospheric noise on the band
     B. When the band is crowded
     C. When the frequency in use is clear
     D. When the sunspot count is relatively high

3D-12.5 What effect can result from using a speech processor with
a single-sideband phone transmitter?
     A. A properly adjusted speech processor reduces average
transmitter power requirements
     B. A properly adjusted speech processor reduces unwanted
noise pickup from the microphone
     C. A properly adjusted speech processor improves voice
frequency fidelity
     D. A properly adjusted speech processor improves signal
intelligibility at the receiver

3D-13.1 At what point in a coaxial line should an electronic T-R
switch be installed?
     A. Between the transmitter and low-pass filter
     B. Between the low-pass filter and antenna
     C. At the antenna feed point
     D. Right after the low-pass filter

3D-13.2 Why is an electronic T-R switch preferable to a
mechanical one?
     A. Greater receiver sensitivity
     B. Circuit simplicity
     C. Higher operating speed
     D. Cleaner output signals

3D-13.3 What station accessory facilitates QSK operation?
     A. Oscilloscope
     B. Audio CW filter
     C. Antenna relay
     D. Electronic TR switch

3D-14.6 What is an antenna ++++noise bridge++++?
     A. An instrument for measuring the noise figure of an
antenna or other electrical circuit
     B. An instrument for measuring the impedance of an antenna
or other electrical circuit
     C. An instrument for measuring solar flux
     D. An instrument for tuning out noise in a receiver

3D-14.7 How is an antenna noise bridge used?
     A. It is connected at the antenna feed point, and the noise
is read directly
     B. It is connected between a transmitter and an antenna and
tuned for minimum SWR
     C. It is connected between a receiver and an unknown
impedance and tuned for minimum noise
     D. It is connected between an antenna and a Transmatch and
adjusted for minimum SWR

3D-15.1 How does the emitted waveform from a properly adjusted
single-sideband phone transmitter appear on a monitoring
oscilloscope?
     A. A vertical line
     B. A waveform that mirrors the input waveform
     C. A square wave
     D. Two loops at right angles

3D-15.2 What is the best instrument for checking the transmitted
signal quality from a CW or single-sideband phone transmitter?
     A. A monitor oscilloscope
     B. A field strength meter
     C. A sidetone monitor
     D. A diode probe and an audio amplifier

3D-15.3 What is a ++++monitoring oscilloscope++++?
     A. A device used by the FCC to detect out-of-band signals
     B. A device used to observe the waveform of a transmitted
signal
     C. A device used to display SSTV signals
     D. A device used to display signals in a receiver IF stage

3D-15.4 How is a monitoring oscilloscope connected in a station
in order to check the quality of the transmitted signal?
     A. Connect the receiver IF output to the vertical-deflection
plates of the oscilloscope
     B. Connect the transmitter audio input to the oscilloscope
vertical input
     C. Connect a receiving antenna directly to the oscilloscope
vertical input
     D. Connect the transmitter output to the vertical-deflection
plates of the oscilloscope

3D-17.2 What is the most appropriate instrument to use when
determining antenna horizontal radiation patterns?
     A. A field strength meter
     B. A grid-dip meter
     C. A wave meter
     D. A vacuum-tube voltmeter

3D-17.3 What is a ++++field-strength++++ meter?
     A. A device for determining the standing-wave ratio on a
transmission line
     B. A device for checking modulation on the output of a
transmitter
     C. A device for monitoring relative RF output
     D. A device for increasing the average transmitter output

3D-17.4 What is a simple instrument that can be useful for
monitoring relative RF output during antenna and transmitter
adjustments?
     A. A field-strength meter
     B. An antenna noise bridge
     C. A multimeter
     D. A Transmatch

3D-17.5 When the power output from a transmitter is increased by
four times, how should the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver
change?
     A. Decrease by approximately one S-unit
     B. Increase by approximately one S-unit
     C. Increase by approximately four S-units
     D. Decrease by approximately four S-units

3D-17.6 By how many times must the power output from a
transmitter be increased to raise the S-meter reading on a nearby
receiver from S-8 to S-9?
     A. Approximately 2 times
     B. Approximately 3 times
     C. Approximately 4 times
     D. Approximately 5 times

See GEN-2.ASC for the remainder of this pool plus it's answers...